PutnamSuperchallengeIntegrals I: Feynman's Trick ShareIntegrals I: Feynman's Trick · Superchallenge problemLet I(a)=∫0∞arctan(ax)x(1+x2) dx\displaystyle I(a) = \int_0^\infty \frac{\arctan(ax)}{x(1+x^2)}\,dxI(a)=∫0∞x(1+x2)arctan(ax)dx for a≥0a \ge 0a≥0. Compute I(1)I(1)I(1). Express your answer in terms of π\piπ and ln2\ln 2ln2.Check Show answer Walk through it step by step Practice more like this Review this concept