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PutnamSuperchallengeIntegrals I: Feynman's Trick

Integrals I: Feynman's Trick · Superchallenge problem

Let I(a)=∫0∞arctan⁡(ax)x(1+x2) dx\displaystyle I(a) = \int_0^\infty \frac{\arctan(ax)}{x(1+x^2)}\,dx for a≥0a \ge 0. Compute I(1)I(1). Express your answer in terms of π\pi and ln⁡2\ln 2.