Limits, Continuity & the Big Theorems

Study Sheet

Limits, Continuity & the Big Theorems

IVT, MVT, Taylor with remainder, and limits in disguise

The Theorems That Do the Work

Tip
Limits that are derivatives, integrals, or exponentials in disguise

n(21/n−1)→ln⁡2n(2^{1/n} - 1) \to \ln 2 (a derivative); 1n∑f(kn)→∫01f\tfrac1n\sum f(\tfrac kn) \to \int_0^1 f (an integral); (1+an)n→ea(1 + \tfrac an)^n \to e^a (an exponential); (n!)1/nn→1e\tfrac{(n!)^{1/n}}{n} \to \tfrac1e (a log of a Riemann sum).

The first reflex for any strange limit: rewrite it as a difference quotient, a Riemann sum, or exp⁡(log)\exp(\text{log}). The second: Taylor expand — sin⁡x−xx3→−16\tfrac{\sin x - x}{x^3} \to -\tfrac16 because sin⁡x=x−x36+⋯\sin x = x - \tfrac{x^3}{6} + \cdots, and lim⁡(cos⁡x)1/x2=e−1/2\lim(\cos x)^{1/x^2} = e^{-1/2} because ln⁡cos⁡x≈−x22\ln\cos x \approx -\tfrac{x^2}{2}. L'Hôpital is the tool of last resort: it is slow and it hides the structure.

Tip
IVT, MVT, Rolle, and Taylor with remainder

Continuous ff on [a,b][a,b] takes every value between f(a)f(a) and f(b)f(b). Differentiable ff has f(b)−f(a)=f′(c)(b−a)f(b) - f(a) = f'(c)(b - a) for some c∈(a,b)c \in (a,b). And f(x)=∑k<nf(k)(a)k!(x−a)k+f(n)(ξ)n!(x−a)nf(x) = \sum_{k<n}\tfrac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}(x-a)^k + \tfrac{f^{(n)}(\xi)}{n!}(x-a)^n.

Reminder — The Mean Value Theorem:  f′(c)=f(b)−f(a)b−afor some c∈(a,b)f'(c)=\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a} \quad\text{for some } c \in (a,b)
Reminder — The Intermediate Value Theorem:  f continuous on [a,b], f(a)<k<f(b) ⟹ f(c)=k for some c∈(a,b)f \text{ continuous on } [a,b],\ f(a)<k<f(b) \ \Longrightarrow\ f(c)=k \text{ for some } c\in(a,b)

Existence of roots is IVT; uniqueness is monotonicity (a derivative that keeps one sign) — x=cos⁡xx = \cos x has exactly one solution, ex=3xe^x = 3x exactly two. MVT converts a statement about VALUES into one about a DERIVATIVE at some unknown point; Rolle is the case f(a)=f(b)f(a) = f(b), which proves that between two roots of ff lies a root of f′f' (so a polynomial with nn real roots has n−1n - 1 real critical points). Taylor with the Lagrange remainder gives INEQUALITIES: cos⁡x≥1−x22\cos x \ge 1 - \tfrac{x^2}{2}, ex≥1+xe^x \ge 1 + x, ln⁡(1+x)≤x\ln(1+x) \le x — each a one-line remainder-sign argument.

Side note
Continuity versus uniform continuity, and why graders care

On a closed bounded interval, continuous functions are bounded, attain their extrema, and are uniformly continuous — three facts a Putnam solution may cite by name. On open or infinite intervals none of them is automatic, and the counterexamples (1x\tfrac1x on (0,1)(0,1), x2x^2 on R\mathbb R) are exactly the ones that appear in the hard problems.

Side note
Where it goes wrong

"lim⁡x→∞x+sin⁡xx\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{x + \sin x}{x}: by L'Hôpital this is lim⁡(1+cos⁡x)\lim(1 + \cos x), which does not exist, so the limit does not exist." But x+sin⁡xx=1+sin⁡xx→1\frac{x + \sin x}{x} = 1 + \frac{\sin x}{x} \to 1. L'Hôpital's rule says: IF lim⁡f′g′\lim\frac{f'}{g'} exists, THEN lim⁡fg\lim\frac fg equals it. It says nothing when lim⁡f′g′\lim\frac{f'}{g'} fails to exist, and the step "the derivative ratio has no limit, so neither does the original" uses a converse that is false. Rewriting the expression, as here, is almost always faster anyway.

Reminder — L'Hôpital's Rule:  lim⁡x→cf(x)g(x)=lim⁡x→cf′(x)g′(x)when 00 or ∞∞\lim_{x\to c}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \lim_{x\to c}\frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)} \quad\text{when } \tfrac{0}{0} \text{ or } \tfrac{\infty}{\infty}
Try it
Try it: count the solutions

How many real solutions does x3−3x+1=0x^3 - 3x + 1 = 0 have?

Show the answer

f′=3x2−3f' = 3x^2 - 3 vanishes at ±1\pm1; f(−1)=3>0f(-1) = 3 > 0 and f(1)=−1<0f(1) = -1 < 0 with f→∓∞f \to \mp\infty at ∓∞\mp\infty: three sign changes, hence three real roots (and a cubic has at most three). They are 2cos⁡2πk92\cos\tfrac{2\pi k}{9}-type numbers — not needed for the count.

Proofs & Why It Matters

Tip
Proof: the mean value theorem from Rolle

Rolle: if ff is continuous on [a,b][a,b], differentiable on (a,b)(a,b), and f(a)=f(b)f(a) = f(b), then f′(c)=0f'(c) = 0 for some cc.

Rolle: ff attains a max and min on [a,b][a,b] (extreme value theorem). If both occur at endpoints then ff is constant and any cc works; otherwise an interior extremum has f′(c)=0f'(c) = 0 (Fermat: the difference quotients from the two sides have opposite signs). MVT: apply Rolle to g(x)=f(x)−f(b)−f(a)b−a(x−a)g(x) = f(x) - \tfrac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}(x - a), which has g(a)=g(b)=f(a)g(a) = g(b) = f(a); g′(c)=0g'(c) = 0 gives f′(c)=f(b)−f(a)b−af'(c) = \tfrac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}. ■\blacksquare Significance: the MVT is how every inequality between a function and its derivative is proved, and how Taylor's remainder is derived (apply it to the right auxiliary function).

Tip
Proof: (n!)1/nn→1e\frac{(n!)^{1/n}}{n} \to \frac1e

A limit that looks like it needs Stirling and does not.

ln⁡(n!)1/nn=1n∑k=1nln⁡k−ln⁡n=1n∑k=1nln⁡kn\ln\tfrac{(n!)^{1/n}}{n} = \tfrac1n\sum_{k=1}^n\ln k - \ln n = \tfrac1n\sum_{k=1}^n\ln\tfrac kn, a Riemann sum for ∫01ln⁡x dx\int_0^1\ln x\,dx. The integrand is unbounded at 00, so justify: the sum is a right-endpoint sum of a monotone function, hence squeezed: each term 1nln⁡kn\tfrac1n\ln\tfrac kn is at least ∫(k−1)/nk/nln⁡x dx\int_{(k-1)/n}^{k/n}\ln x\,dx and, for k<nk < n, at most ∫k/n(k+1)/nln⁡x dx\int_{k/n}^{(k+1)/n}\ln x\,dx (the k=nk = n term is 00). Summing, −1=∫01ln⁡x dx≤1n∑k=1nln⁡kn≤∫1/n1ln⁡x dx→−1-1 = \int_0^1\ln x\,dx \le \tfrac1n\sum_{k=1}^n\ln\tfrac kn \le \int_{1/n}^1\ln x\,dx \to -1. Exponentiate: the limit is e−1e^{-1}. ■\blacksquare Significance: "log, Riemann sum, exponentiate" handles every limit of a geometric-mean shape — and handling the endpoint singularity honestly is what earns the 1010.

Going Deeper: Worked Problems

Example
Worked: an MVT inequality
xy12cy = ln t
x = 2: the secant of ln over [1, 3] has slope ln 3/2 ≈ 0.549, and the tangent at c = 2/ln 3 ≈ 1.82 (dashed) is parallel to it; since 1 < c < 3, the slope 1/c lies between 1/3 and 1.

Prove ln⁡(1+x)≥x1+x\ln(1 + x) \ge \dfrac{x}{1 + x} for x>0x > 0, and find lim⁡n→∞nln⁡ ⁣(1+1n)\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}n\ln\!\left(1 + \tfrac1n\right).

Step 1 — MVT on ln⁡\ln over [1,1+x][1, 1 + x]: ln⁡(1+x)−ln⁡1=1c⋅x\ln(1 + x) - \ln 1 = \tfrac1c\cdot x for some c∈(1,1+x)c \in (1, 1 + x), and 1c>11+x\tfrac1c > \tfrac{1}{1+x}, giving ln⁡(1+x)>x1+x\ln(1+x) > \tfrac{x}{1+x}.

Step 2 — the same MVT also gives ln⁡(1+x)<x\ln(1+x) < x (since 1c<1\tfrac1c < 1).

Step 3 — squeeze with x=1nx = \tfrac1n: 1/n1+1/n<ln⁡(1+1n)<1n\tfrac{1/n}{1 + 1/n} < \ln(1 + \tfrac1n) < \tfrac1n, multiply by nn: nn+1<nln⁡(1+1n)<1\tfrac{n}{n+1} < n\ln(1 + \tfrac1n) < 1, so the limit is 11.

Step 4 — exponentiate to recover (1+1n)n→e(1 + \tfrac1n)^n \to e, now PROVED rather than assumed.

Example
Worked: Taylor's remainder bounds an error
xy−3−2−112−3−2−111 − x²/2cos x1 − x²/2 + x⁴/24 (faint)
cos x (solid) squeezed between 1 − x²/2 (dashed) and 1 − x²/2 + x⁴/24 (faint) on the whole line; the gap is the remainder term.

Show ∣cos⁡x−(1−x22)∣≤x424\left|\cos x - \left(1 - \tfrac{x^2}{2}\right)\right| \le \dfrac{x^4}{24} for all real xx.

Step 1 — Taylor at 00 to order 33 with Lagrange remainder: cos⁡x=1−x22+0⋅x3+cos⁡(4)(ξ)4!x4\cos x = 1 - \tfrac{x^2}{2} + 0\cdot x^3 + \tfrac{\cos^{(4)}(\xi)}{4!}x^4 for some ξ\xi between 00 and xx.

Step 2 — cos⁡(4)=cos⁡\cos^{(4)} = \cos and ∣cos⁡ξ∣≤1|\cos\xi| \le 1, so ∣cos⁡x−(1−x22)∣=∣cos⁡ξ∣24x4≤x424\left|\cos x - \left(1 - \tfrac{x^2}{2}\right)\right| = \tfrac{|\cos\xi|}{24}x^4 \le \tfrac{x^4}{24}.

Step 3 — the one-sided bound comes from stopping one term earlier: cos⁡x=1−cos⁡η2x2\cos x = 1 - \tfrac{\cos\eta}{2}x^2 for some η\eta between 00 and xx, and cos⁡η≤1\cos\eta \le 1 gives cos⁡x≥1−x22\cos x \ge 1 - \tfrac{x^2}{2} for EVERY real xx.

Step 4 — so 1−x22≤cos⁡x≤1−x22+x4241 - \tfrac{x^2}{2} \le \cos x \le 1 - \tfrac{x^2}{2} + \tfrac{x^4}{24} (the upper bound is the remainder estimate with its sign), and at x=1x = 1 this pins cos⁡1≈0.5403\cos 1 \approx 0.5403 between 0.50.5 and 0.54170.5417. The remainder term is a precise, citable error bar.

Rigor: ε\varepsilon-δ\delta, Uniform Convergence and Compactness

Tip
What an ε\varepsilon-δ\delta proof must contain

Given ε>0\varepsilon > 0, EXHIBIT a δ>0\delta > 0 (or an NN) and show the required inequality for every point within δ\delta (or every index past NN).

Graders look for three things: the δ\delta is produced before the estimate, it depends only on ε\varepsilon (and on the point, unless the claim is uniform), and the chain of inequalities actually reaches ε\varepsilon. Working backwards on scratch paper to FIND δ\delta is fine; the written proof states it and verifies forwards. For f(x)=x2f(x) = x^2 near x0x_0, the standard choice is δ=min⁡(1,ε2∣x0∣+1)\delta = \min\left(1, \dfrac{\varepsilon}{2|x_0| + 1}\right), and the min⁡\min with 11 is what bounds the stray factor ∣x+x0∣|x + x_0|.

Tip
Pointwise versus uniform convergence

Pointwise: for each xx, fn(x)→f(x)f_n(x) \to f(x). Uniform: sup⁡x∣fn(x)−f(x)∣→0\sup_x|f_n(x) - f(x)| \to 0 — one NN works for every xx at once.

The distinction decides what survives the limit. fn(x)=xnf_n(x) = x^n on [0,1][0,1] converges pointwise to a discontinuous limit, so the convergence cannot be uniform; uniform limits of continuous functions ARE continuous. Uniform convergence also licenses swapping limit with integral, and the Weierstrass MM-test (∣fn∣≤Mn|f_n| \le M_n with ∑Mn<∞\sum M_n < \infty) is the usual way to establish it for a series.

Tip
Compactness, and why it is the hypothesis that saves proofs

A closed bounded subset of Rn\mathbb{R}^n is compact; a continuous function on a compact set attains its maximum and minimum, and is uniformly continuous there.

That is the reason so many Putnam statements say "continuous on [0,1][0,1]": the extreme value theorem hands you a maximiser to work with, and uniform continuity upgrades local estimates to global ones. On an open or unbounded domain both can fail — f(x)=1/xf(x) = 1/x on (0,1)(0,1) is continuous, unbounded and not uniformly continuous — so the first question about any analysis problem is what the domain is.

Example
Worked: where interchanging fails
xy0.5246n = 2n = 4n = 8
f₂, f₄, f₈: each spike has area n · (1/n) = 1, yet at every fixed x > 0 the values are eventually 0.

Show that lim⁡n→∞∫01fn≠∫01lim⁡n→∞fn\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_0^1 f_n \ne \int_0^1 \lim_{n\to\infty} f_n for fn(x)=nf_n(x) = n on (0,1n)\left(0, \tfrac1n\right) and 00 elsewhere.

Step 1 — pointwise limit: for each fixed x>0x > 0, fn(x)=0f_n(x) = 0 once n>1/xn > 1/x, and fn(0)=0f_n(0) = 0, so fn→0f_n \to 0 pointwise.

Step 2 — the integrals: ∫01fn=n⋅1n=1\int_0^1 f_n = n\cdot\tfrac1n = 1 for every nn.

Step 3 — so the limit of the integrals is 11 while the integral of the limit is 00. The mass escapes into a taller, narrower spike; uniform convergence (or domination) is exactly what forbids that, which is why the hypothesis must be stated, not assumed.

Side note
Name the theorem you are using

On the Putnam, "by uniform convergence on [0,1][0,1] we may integrate term by term" earns the point that "clearly we can swap" does not. Dominated convergence, monotone convergence and the MM-test are the three names worth having ready.

Try it
Try it: uniform or not?

Does fn(x)=xnf_n(x) = \dfrac{x}{n} converge uniformly on [0,1][0,1]? On [0,∞)[0,\infty)?

Show the answer

On [0,1][0,1]: yes — sup⁡∣fn∣=1n→0\sup|f_n| = \tfrac1n \to 0. On [0,∞)[0,\infty): no — sup⁡xxn=∞\sup_x \tfrac xn = \infty for every nn, so the convergence is only pointwise.